A company has $100m face value of in-the-money convertible bonds (conversion price $20, current share price $30). How should you treat the convertible in the enterprise-value bridge? Walk through the calculation.
An advanced Valuation question — expect it in final rounds and case-heavy interviews (IB, PE, Big-4 Transaction Services).
THE SHORT ANSWER
Because the convertible is in-the-money, you treat it as equity, not debt, using the if-converted method (this is the more conservative/standard approach when it's clearly in-the-money). The conversion ratio is $100m ÷ $20 = 5.0m new shares. So: remove the $100m convertible from debt in the net-debt portion of the bridge, and instead add the 5.0m shares to the diluted share count. Those 5.0m shares at the $30 price represent $150m of equity value. The net effect versus leaving it as $100m of debt is that enterprise value reflects the higher of the two treatments and you avoid double-counting (you don't count it as both $100m of debt and 5m dilutive shares). If instead the convertible were out-of-the-money, you'd leave it as straight debt at face value with no dilution. Always state the convention: in-the-money → if-converted (equity, add shares, drop the debt); out-of-the-money → debt at face.
WHAT INTERVIEWERS LISTEN FOR
- ✓In-the-money convertible → treat as equity via the if-converted method
- ✓Conversion shares = face ÷ conversion price = $100m/$20 = 5.0m
- ✓Remove the $100m from debt; add 5.0m shares to diluted count (= $150m equity value)
- ✓Out-of-the-money → leave as straight debt at face; never double-count
COMMON MISTAKES
- ✗Counting it as both debt and dilutive shares (double-counting)
- ✗Treating an in-the-money convertible as straight debt
- ✗Using face value instead of the conversion-share count
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